AGRONOMY 114 EXAM II                                        Page 1

 

 

                                                       NAME:

 

 

        DIRECTIONS:

        MARK THE ONE BEST ANSWER ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET.

 

    1.  A variety that anyone can sell if they meet legal seed

        requirements is called

        a) a parent variety

        b) a common variety

        c) a private variety

        d) a protected variety

        e) a graded variety

 

    2.  If the evapotranspiration rate of a crop is 2 cm per day, the

        crop rooting depth was 1 m, and the soil held 5 cm of available

        water per 33.3 cm of soil; how long would it take the crop to

        lower the water content of the soil to wilting point if no rain

        was received?

        a) 3.0 days

        b) 7.5 days

        c) 15.2 days

        d) 20.0 days

        e) 50.0 days

 

    3.  In the pedigree method of breeding self-pollinated species,

        selection usually begins in the

        a) F1 generation

        b) F2 generation

        c) F3 generation

        d) F4 generation

        e) F5 generation

 

    4.  Which crop is most likely to be planted with a row crop planter

        in a drill pattern?

        a) wheat

        b) alfalfa

        c) orchardgrass

        d) soybeans

        e) birdsfoot trefoil

 

    5.  Suppose the recommended planting rate is 12 lbs/A.  Lot 1 seed

        had 80% germination and 90% purity, lot 2 seed had 90%

        germination and 80% purity.  Lot 1 seed averaged 150 mg/seed

        and Lot 2 seed averaged 200 mg/seed.  The planter

        a) should be set to plant about 14 lbs/A pure live seed

        b) should be set to plant about 16 lbs/A pure live seed

        c) should be set to plant about 9 lbs/A pure live seed

        d) should be set to plant more seed/A of lot 1 than lot 2

        e) will plant less seed/A of lot 2 than lot 1 seed


       AGRONOMY 114 EXAM II  A                                      Page 2

 

 

    6.  This primary tillage implement is used mainly in areas with

        limited rainfall.

        a) sweep plow

        b) powered rotary tiller

        c) disk plow

        d) moldboard plow

        e) field cultivator

 

    7.  Lime is added to an acid soil to make it more neutral.

        Why do you want a soil that is near a neutral pH?

        a) plants will grow only in neutral pH soil

        b) more nutrients are available at a neutral pH than

           at any other pH

        c) do not want a neutral pH

        d) soil disease organisms do not grow at a neutral pH

        e) soil moisture conditions are improved

 

    8.  The result of selfing in crops is to

        a) move the traits toward homozygosity

        b) increase the number of heterogeneous populations

        c) reduce the amount of inbreeding

        d) increase the amount of segregation among the F6 traits

        e) increase the amount of hybrid vigor in offspring

 

    9.  Soil erosion in Illinois would mostly likely be highest under

        what rotation?

        a) Corn, corn, corn.

        b) Corn, soybeans, corn

        c) Corn, oat, meadow

        d) Corn, fallow, corn

        e) Pasture, pasture, pasture

 

   10.  If the reproductive ratio of a crop is 50 and you had only 1

        bushel of breeder's seed, how many bushel of certified seed

        would be available for farmers if the variety was increased

        through seed certification without duplicating any steps?

        a) 50

        b) 200

        c) 2500

        d) 125,000

        e) 6,250,000

 

   11.  The O horizon in soils is

        a) just below the A horizon

        b) just above the R horizon

        c) made up of glacial material

        d) a topmost layer in some soils

        e) sometimes referred to as an E horizon


       AGRONOMY 114 EXAM II  A                                      Page 3

 

 

   12.  M&Ms is a popular candy in America.  The small, oval shaped

        chocolate candies come in a variety of colors.  People

        invariably have their own favorite color and to some, certain

        colored M&Ms give special powers or insights to those who eat

        them.  Thus, when an assortment of M&Ms are available, people

        tend to pick their favorite color resulting in unequal

        distribution to everyone.  To prevent this from happening, one

        might use a concept similar to

        a) male sterility

        b) conventional tillage

        c) photoperodism

        d) the tetrazolium test

        e) the boerner divider

 

   13.  Seed is likely to be planted on a ridge in a

        a) semi-arid area with sandy soil

        b) semi-arid area with loam soil

        c) humid area with clay loam soil

        d) humid area with sandy soil

        e) subhumid area with loam soil

 

   14.  In a tetrazolium test, dark stained embryos indicate

        a) healthy seed

        b) non-living tissues of the seed

        c) diseased seed

        d) hard seeds

        e) scarified seeds

 

   15.  Some excellent remains of well-preserved dinosaurs have been

        discovered in ancient, lakebeds in South America.  These

        remains were likely embedded in

        a) alluvial soils

        b) lacustrine soils

        c) loess soils

        d) colluvial soils

        e) upland soils

 

   16.  Suppose your neighbor called and asked you to bring your

        Case-IH tractor to the neighbor's field to pull out the

        neighbor's John Deere tractor, which was stuck in the mud.

        Slightly irritated because this was the 5th time you had to do

        this for the neighbor, you drove over and found the tractor

        axle-deep in mud in what likely spot?

        a) area of heavy soil

        b) area of light soil

        c) area of sandy soil

        d) on a hillside with the stuck tractor facing down hill

           (hint: although a possibility, this is not the right answer)

        e) area of high fertility


       AGRONOMY 114 EXAM II  A                                      Page 4

 

 

   17.  Combines that are improperly adjusted often result in cracked

        seedcoats and split beans.  The quickest way to determine

        seedcoat injury is by using

        a) tetrazolium

        b) clorox

        c) purity analysis

        d) cold test

        e) grain grading procedures

 

   18.  The major reason for summer fallowing is

        a) to control diseases

        b) to control erosion

        c) to save soil moisture for the next crop

        d) to control insects

        e) to prepare the seedbed for the next crop

 

   19.  The diploid number of chromosomes in martianweed is 2X.  What

        will be the number of chromosomes in the endosperm of this

        new interplanetary introduction?

        a) X        b)X/2         c)X/3         d)2X         e)3X

 

   20.  If one would want to salvage what was once a good variety of

        oats but now has succumbed to a disease, one would most likely

        use what breeding method?

        a) development of F1 hybrid varieties

        b) development of a synthetic variety

        c) bulk selection method

        d) pedigreed selection method

        e) backcross selection method

 

   21.  The water that the world's food crops depend on

        a) covers about 70% of the earth's surface

        b) makes up about 20-30% of the total earth's water

        c) is too salty for human consumption

        d) is more than the amount required for animal and meat

           production in the world

        e) is increasing slightly in the last 100 years

 

   22.  The following crop would have heterozygous plants in it

        a) a soybean variety

        b) an oats variety

        c) a single cross hybrid corn variety

        d) a wheat variety

        e) an inbred corn line

 

   23.  Moisture tension at which most crop plants reach the wilting

        point is usually around

        a) 10,000 atmospheres

        b) 15 atmosphere

        c) 1/3 atmosphere

        d) 2 atmospheres

        e) 31 atmospheres


       AGRONOMY 114 EXAM II  A                                      Page 5

 

 

   24.  The total biomass of switchgrass varieties grown for renewable

        fuel would contain the lowest total amount of

        a) Mn

        b) Mg

        c) K

        d) N

        e) Ca

 

   25.  On which of the following crops would nitrogen fertilizer

        generally have its greatest effect?

        a) bromegrass

        b) alfalfa

        c) soybeans

        d) birdsfoot trefoil

        e) red clover

 

   26.  Which of the following adverse soil conditions is most

        difficult to remedy?

        a) low fertility

        b) coarse (sandy) texture

        c) pH4

        d) poor drainage

        e) excessive erosion

 

   27.  After gametogenesis, the female ovary will have produced how

        many total haploid nuclei in the ovary when the pistil is ready

        for pollination?  How many of these nuclei get fertilized by

        the sperm nuclei?

        a) 3, 3

        b) 4, 1

        c) 4, 3

        d) 3, 1

        e) 8, 3

 

   28.  High salt levels in the soil profile

        a) make vegetables tastier

        b) reduce the amount of available water

        c) increase total water

        d) decrease total water

        e) occur more often in humid areas

 

   29.  The phenotype of the F1 offspring from a cross, EE x ee, would be

        a) mostly segregated

        b) mostly homozygous

        c) heterogeneous

        d) homogeneous

        e) haploid

 

   30.  Which cell would likely have homologous chromosomes?

        a) barley gamete cell

        b) soybean egg cell

        c) maize cotyledon cell

        d) wheat sperm cell

        e) homozygous locus cell


       AGRONOMY 114 EXAM II  A                                      Page 6

 

 

   31.  In northern crop production areas, no-till tillage systems may

        not be as popular as more intensive tillage systems because of

        a) fuel savings

        b) weed control

        c) insect control

        d) delayed planting

        e) subsoil compaction

 

   32.  As a high school teacher you developed a new lab exhibit for

        your students.  You planted alfalfa, corn, and wheat at a depth

        of 1 inch.  The likely order of emergence will be

        a) corn, wheat, alfalfa

        b) wheat, alfalfa, corn

        c) corn, alfalfa, wheat

        d) alfalfa, wheat, corn

        e) alfalfa, corn, wheat

 

   33.  In California alfalfa seed growers purchase or contract with

        honeybee producers to pollinate their seed fields.  The alfalfa

        varieties are primarily.

        a) Fi hybrids

        b) pure-line varieties

        c) backcross varieties

        d) introductions

        e) synthetic varieties

 

   34.  Ironically, nitrate contamination in fresh water is often lower

        in watersheds with steep topography than in watersheds with

        flatter topography.  This is most likely due to

        a) soil type difference

        b) % of row crop acres that are no-tilled

        c) type of cropping systems

        d) type of waterways

        e) amount of tiling in fields

 

   35.  Farmers who sell their switchgrass seed a year after harvest

        may get paid more because

        a) the PLS will improve

        b) the purity will improve

        c) the germination percentage will improve

        d) switchgrass seeds are always scarce and that drives prices up

        e) a and c are correct

 

   36.  What soil would have the deepest layer of black surface soil

        under normal conditions?

        a) a soil derived under trees with a slope of 20%

        b) a soil with a slope of 10%

        c) a soil derived under trees with a slope of 5%

        d) a soil derived on a glacial till with trees with a slope

           of 1%

        e) a soil derived on glacial till with a slope of 6-7% and

           grass vegetation


       AGRONOMY 114 EXAM II  A                                      Page 7

   37.  Scarification of alfalfa seed will

        a) prolong the life of the seed

        b) insure the seed will imbibe water

        c) permit deeper planting of the seed

        d) result in a lower plant population

        e) remove the light requirement for germination

 

   38.  U.S. No 3 quality barley seed refers to quality of barley for

        a) planting seed

        b) certification

        c) legal seed

        d) feed

        e) public varieties

 

   39.  In general, a higher soil organic matter would

        a) increase the available moisture capacity of our soils

        b) decrease the available moisture capacity

        c) not change the available moisture capacity

        d) decrease the hygroscopic moisture

        e) increase the wilting point

 

   40.  To create variability among two pure-lines to allow for

        subsequent selection of offspring one would use

        a) hybridization

        b) backcrossing

        c) selfing

        d) double fertilization

        e) triple fusion

 

   41.  Which plant factor would be maximized in mid-August in a

        Midwest grain field that would also correspond to maximum rates

        of crop water use during the growing season?

        a) seed growth

        b) photosynthesis

        c) respiration

        d) leaf area per unit land area

        e) nitrogen uptake

 

   42.  Which of the following pairs of statements is true for soil

        compaction?

        a) The wetter the soil the less compaction.

        b) The drier the soil the greater the compaction.

        c) The drier the soil the greater the depth of compaction.

        d) The wetter the soil the greater force of compaction.

        e) The wetter the soil the less width of compaction.

 

   43.  If a farmer with John Deere equipment produced a 200 bu/A corn

        crop and received 20 cents more per bushel than another farmer

        who produced a 200 bu/A corn crop using Case-IH equipment, then

        the most probable reason is differences in

        a) test weight

        b) germination

        c) equipment used

        d) commercial weight of the crop

        e) soil type

       


       AGRONOMY 114 EXAM II  A                                      Page 8

 

 

   44.  If the pure live seed percentage for a seed lot was 64% and the

        germination percentage was 80%, then the % other crop seed was

        a) 24%

        b) 51%

        c) 64%

        d) 80%

        e) answer unknown

 

   45.  The types of structural units in a soil do not affect

        a) soil pore size

        b) soil permeability to water and air

        c) soil texture

        d) water infiltration rate

        e) water holding capacity

 

   46.  In most states the following statement about seed

        certification is true

        a) certified seed can always be produced from certified seed

        b) certified and legal seed are identical classifications

        c) registered seed is produced from certified seed

        d) foundation seed is produced from breeder seed

        e) foundation seed is produced from registered seed

 

   47.  The limiting factor to germinating seeds in a lowland soil high

        in clay after some heavy rains would be

        a) weed quality

        b) oxygen

        c) nitrogen

        d) moisture

        e) seed carbohydrate level

 

   48.  "Available" water in the rooting zone should be highest in

        a) sandy loam soil

        b) loam soil

        c) clay loam soil

        d) clay soil

        e) sand soil

 

   49.  A light requirement for germination is advantageous for

        a) long day plants

        b) large seeded plant species

        c) small seeded plant species

        d) fall season crops

        e) soybeans

 

   50.  Iowa ranks in what place among all states in soil erosion?

        a) number one worst state

        b) top 3 worst states

        c) top 5 worst states

        d) top 10 worst states

        e) average among all states


 

AGRONOMY 114 EXAM II 

(Answers may not be 100% correct; check with instructor if questionable)

 

 Item Answer

     1  2

     2 2

     3 2

     4 4

     5 5

     6 1

     7 2

     8 1

     9 4

    10 4

    11 4

    12 5

    13 3

    14 1

    15 2

    16 1

    17 2

    18 3

    19 5

    20 5

    21 4

    22 3

    23 2

    24 1

    25 1

    26 2

    27 5

    28 2

    29 4

    30 3

    31 4

    32 1

    33 5

    34 3

    35 5

    36 5

    37 2

    38 4

    39 1

    40 1

    41 4

    42 4

    43 1

    44 5

    45 3

    46 4

    47 2

    48 2

    49 3

    50 1