AGRONOMY 114 Exam 2 Page 1
NAME:
DIRECTIONS:
MARK THE ONE BEST ANSWER ON
YOUR ANSWER SHEET.
1.
Drip irrigation is most likely found in what soil type?
a) silt loam
b) loamy sand
c) clay loam
d) loam
e) sandy clay loam
2.
Nitrogen is a primary nutrient that is a common limiting factor
in plant growth. Plants use the
majority of the nitrogen to
form what?
a) carbohydrates
b) proteins
c) lipids
d) fats
e) lignin
3.
Which crop is likely produced by the synthetic variety method?
a) wheat
b) maize
c) red clover
d) rice
e) soybean
4.
The types of structural units in a soil do not affect
a) soil pore size
b) soil permeability to water and air
c) soil texture
d) water infiltration rate
e) water holding capacity
5.
Genetic segregation occurs
a) in the F1 population of a cross
between inbred lines
b) in the F1 population of a cross
between two wheat
varieties
c) among the offspring of a corn plant
after 7 generations
of self pollination
d) among the F2 plants following a
cross between two soybean
varieties
e) among plants of the BC7 population
in a backcross after
selecting out the desired
characteristic (such as rust
resistance)
AGRONOMY 114 Exam 2 A Page 2
6.
The negative effects of inbreeding on genetic improvement of
crop plants is minimized or overcome
by
a) selection and culling of plants
b) hybridization of inbreds when
feasible
c) selecting parents from outside the
closely related line of
the progeny
d) b and c
e) all of the above
7.
Suppose a person using the same variety of seed on the same
land measured a yield variation over
ten years of 70 bushels
per acre. The average yield of this
ten-year period was 150
bushels per acre. Pick the formula
that gives the correct
answer.
a) 150 - 70 = 80, due to genotype
b) 150 + 70 = 220, due to genotype
c) 150 / 70 = 2.14, due to phenotype
d) 150 * 70 = 10,500, due to
environment
e) 150 - 70 = 80, due to phenotype
8.
Generally speaking, seeds would germinate most slowly in soils with
a) low capillary water
b) little surface trash
c) low iron content
d) 25% air content
e) little salt content
9.
Which is true about a potato planter?
a) seed placement 1-2" deep is
critical
b) good seed-to-soil contact is
essential
c) covering the seed requires a
shallow disking after planting
d) seed pieces are covered by
"hilling" the soil over the
planted row by covering disks
e) seed placement is random because of
the lack of placement
control of broadcasting
10.
If a bag of seed has 80% germination, 90% purity, 0.2 other
crop seed and 1% damage, and has a
quoted price of 0.26 per
kilogram, what is the real cost of the
pure live seed?
a) 28 cents per kilogram
b) 29 cents per kilogram
c) 30 cents per kilogram
d) 36 cents per kilogram
e) 38 cents per kilogram
11.
Over 99% of the total water needs of a farm in Central U.S.
is related to crop production. Most of the water used by
crops is for
a) grain moisture
b) stalk moisture
c) root moisture
d) flower structures
e) evapotranspiration
AGRONOMY 114 Exam 2 A Page 3
12.
Suppose 200 bushels of wheat graded No. 1, 400 bushels of wheat
graded No. 3, and 600 bushels of wheat
graded No. 5. If these
lots were blended, then the average
grade for the overall
amount would be marketed and sold as
what grade?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
13.
The Loess Hills in western Iowa are an important and unique
ecological feature in Iowa. The parent
material of the Loess
Hills was transported to form what
type of soil?
a) alluvial
b) lacustrine
c) glacial
d) eolian
e) residual
14.
Nitrate contamination in fresh water streams in a given year
would probably be greatest in the
watershed that contains the
greatest amount of
a) sandy soils, soybeans, conventional
tillage
b) loam soils, corn production,
conventional tillage
c) loam soils, wheat production,
conventional tillage
d) sandy soils, alfalfa production, conventional tillage
e) silt loam soils, corn production,
no-tillage
15.
Your neighbor has some extra seed from six years ago that she
is willing to sell you at a greatly
reduced price. You want
seed with high vigor and therefore ask
your neighbor if you can
have some seed to test the seed vigor.
Which test would you do?
a) physiological dormancy test
b) tetrazolium test
c) accelerated aging test
d) sodium hypochlorite test
e) mechanical damage drop test
16.
Good seed-to-soil contact is needed primarily to supply the
seed with
a) air
b) moisture
c) oxygen
d) nutrients
e) germination hormones
17.
If the test weight (lbs./bu.) requirements for soybeans were
56 for No.1, 54 for No.2, 52 for No.3,
and 49 for No.4, what
would the grade be for a load of
soybeans that had a test
weight of 48 lbs/bu?
a) No.1
b) No.2
c) No.3
d) No.4
e) sample grade
AGRONOMY 114 Exam 2 A Page 4
18.
The commercial weight of oats is 32 lbs/bu. A farmer brought a
load of oats into the local elevator. The gross weight of the
truck and oats was 32,000 lbs. The empty weight of the truck
was 12,000 lbs. The test weight of the sampled oats were 40
lbs/bu. At a value of 2/bu for oats weighing over 38 lbs/bu
test weight, what was the value of
oats in the truck?
a) $1000
b) $1053
c) $1250
d) $1600
e) $2200
19.
The important thing to remember when dealing with cereal
endosperm genetic traits is that
a) the zygote is 2N
b) the endosperm has double fusion
c) two nuclei always come from the
female parent
d) the pollen grain has 8 identical
nuclei
e) segregation of alleles only occurs
from the male genome
20.
A farmer in the semi-arid region of eastern Nebraska uses
fertilizer and a combination of
irrigation and natural rainfall
to raise a crop of maize on his sandy
soil. It's mid summer and
the farmer notices the maize plants
are wilting, but calculated
that the crop should have plenty of
water. What could be a
likely cause?
a) salt accumulation near the plant
roots
b) excess moisture
c) lack of oxygen near the roots
d) poor soil aeration
e) excess oxygen near the roots
21.
A soil was found to have poor drainage because of an
impervious layer in the soil
approximately 12 inches deep.
Which of the following most likely
would improve drainage?
a) rotary tillage
b) subsoiling
c) sweep tillage
d) chisel-plow planting
e) till plant
22.
Plants that reproduce sexually go through gametogenesis,
pollination and fertilization. During
gametogenesis,
a) meiosis increases the number of
chromosomes from haploid to
diploid
b) the male gametes are transferred to
the female gametes
c) the male and female gametes are
fused together
d) meiosis occurs, and haploid
microspores and megaspores are
produced
e) there is triple fusion and the
development of triploid
pollen cells
AGRONOMY 114 Exam 2 A Page 5
23.
This conservation tillage system has been primarily used in
areas deficient in rainfall. This system forms a furrow on
non-plowed soil and plants seed in the
furrow in one operation.
This system is called
a) lister-planting
b) strip-till planting
c) strip-rotary tillage
d) till-plant on ridged soil
e) no-till on non-ridged soil
24.
Which crop should be planted at a depth of 1/4 inch below
the soil surface?
a) barley
b) popcorn
c) birdsfoot trefoil
d) wheat
e) rye
25.
The tall grass prairies of Iowa helped form the state's
a) forest soils
b) alluvial soils
c) eolian soils
d) hygroscopic soils
e) mollisol soils
26.
If F1 plants with the genotype YYTt are selfed, what proportion
of the plants will be high yielding
and tall? (YY or Yy = high
yielding; yy = low yielding; TT or Tt
= tall; tt = short)
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 3/4
d) 3/8
e) 9/16
27.
This tillage system is generally used to minimize soil erosion
while maximizing the amount of soil
residue left on the soil
surface. In addition, this tillage
system reduces compaction
and generally saves money by only
requiring one pass. This
tillage system is called
a) clean tillage
b) full width tillage
c) conventional tillage
d) no-till
e) strip tillage
28.
A young soil, as compared to a mature soil, would generally
have
a) less definite profile development
b) well developed surface drainage
c) a well defined B horizon
d) been developed under forest
vegetation
e) hilly topography
AGRONOMY 114 Exam 2 A Page 6
29.
Suppose a farmer was seeding Variety X at a recommended
planting rate of 24,000 plants per
acre in 24" rows. The pure
live seed percentage of the variety
being planted was 80%. The
planter should be dropping seeds in
the row at what distance
apart from each other?
a) 0.4 feet
b) 0.8 feet
c) 1.1 feet
d) 1.4 feet
e) 1.7 feet
30.
"Selfing" a pure line variety (genotype: TT) for 3 generations
would probably result in a
a) heterogenous population
b) slight increase in heterosis
c) slight decrease in male sterility
d) segregating population in the F3
e) population the same as what you
started with
31.
In the pedigree method of breeding self-pollinated species
a) no hybridization occurs
b) only pedigreed plant introductions
are used
c) inbred lines are crossed to produce
F1 hybrid varieties
d) pure lines are released as
cultivars
e) no selection is made until the F4
generation or later
32.
The crop in Iowa most responsible for increased soil erosion in
the past 50 years due to increased
production is
a) corn (Zea mays)
b) oats
c) alfalfa
d) soybeans
e) sunflowers
33.
A farmer has planted his crop; but after a recent rainfall, the
soil has crusted. Which implement
should the farmer use to
break the crust before the entire crop
has emerged?
a) field cultivator
b) rotary hoe
c) lister
d) disk harrow
e) subsoiler
34.
The best chance of crossing traits of wheat with grain sorghum is
a) the pedigree method
b) the bulk method
c) the synthetic variety method
d) the backcross method
e) genetic engineering
35.
The ability of soil to hold water is mainly a function of
a) the amount of sand in the soil
b) percent slope
c) capillary pore space
d) gravitational pore space
e) crop grown
AGRONOMY 114 Exam 2 A Page 7
36.
The term that has been established in grading standards to
distinguish groups, varieties, or
types within a crop that
differ in suitability and/or utilization is
a) grade
b) dockage
c) analytical determination
d) class
e) test weight
37.
Companies that sell some forage legume seeds send the seed
through a scarification process. Why
does the company do this?
a) to help immature seed embryos to
mature quicker
b) to apply a seed coating to improve
injury resistance
c) to reduce seed coat permeability
d) to apply a seed coating
e) to balance the seed hormones that
can prevent germination
38.
What is soil texture?
a) a measure of particle strength
b) a description of the arrangement of
individual soil
particles
c) the classification of soil
aggregates by shape
d) a soil characteristic not related
to permeability
e) the relative proportion of sand,
silt, and clay in the soil
39.
In which of the following crops would you expect more
"hard seed" being present in
the seed lot?
a) alfalfa
b) sorghum
c) corn
d) soybeans
e) oats
40.
The product of organic matter decomposition which helps to
reduce nutrient leaching from the soil
is(are):
a) granular particles
b) potassium
c) humus
d) inorganic compounds
e) bacteria
41.
Nitrogen fixing bacteria found on alfalfa roots generally do
best on a soil pH of
a) 2-4
b) 5-7
c) 6-8
d) 9-11
e) 13-15
AGRONOMY 114 Exam 2 A Page 8
42.
Your aunt and uncle bought a farm in western Nebraska, and plan
to grow corn (maize). Because this
area generally has an
insufficient amount of rainfall to
grow maize, they will need
to irrigate and maximize the water-use
efficiency of their
crop. Which of the following
combinations should have the
greatest water-use efficiency?
a) wide row spacing and low populations
b) narrow row spacing and high
populations
c) wide rows spacing and high
populations
d) narrow row spacing and low
populations
e) wide row spacing and medium
populations
43.
Primary tillage includes
a) rough working of soil to
incorporate past crop residue
and/or incorporate fertilizers
b) final preparation of soil as a
seedbed
c) all the practices utilized in a
no-till system
d) leveling and firming of the soil
e) shallow working of the soil
44.
One of the limiting factors in achieving adequate emergence
of summer annual crops from an earlier
than normal planting
date is
a) carbon dioxide
b) nitrogen
c) phosphorus
d) temperature
e) day length
45.
To be able to legally sell oats seed for planting purposes
the following is a requirement
a) the seed must not contain
troublesome weed seed
b) the seed must be tested for
germination within the last 2
years
c) the seed must be certified
d) germination percentage, if not
known, must be listed as 0%
e) no primary noxious weed seed can be
present
46.
The quickest method to produce a new self-pollinating variety
of oats would be the
a) pedigreed method
b) F1 hybrid method
c) bulk method
d) synthetic variety method
e) single-seed descent method
47.
Low pH
a) indicates an acid soil
b) indicates an alkaline soil
c) soils are common under arid
conditions
d) soils are infertile
e) indicates a low hydrogen ion
concentration
AGRONOMY 114 Exam 2 A Page 9
48.
The moisture content of the soil after a thorough wetting
and the subsequent draining away of
gravitational water is
properly known as
a) the saturated condition
b) the wilting point
c) gravitational point
d) field capacity
e) the wilting range
49.
In his 1731 book, "New Horse-Houghing Husbandry", Englishman
Jethro Tull stated that plants take up
minute soil particles
for nutrition. Therefore, he reasoned, the more finely the
soil is divided (pulverized), the more
particles will be
absorbed by roots and the better crop
plants will produce.
This single book established a
philosophy of secondary
tillage in Northern Europe that has
been very influential
there, as well as in the United States, to this day. This
belief led to practices that
a) minimized the importance of proper
seedbed preparation
b) markedly increased the erodibility
of cropland
c) delayed the acceptance of farm
mechanization
d) have had no effect on modern
agriculture
e) are now completely abandoned
50.
Irrigation frequency would increase for which condition?
a) heavier soil compared to a sandier
soil
b) a deeper rooted crop compared to a
shallower rooted crop
c) a crop of LAI = 3 compared to one
at LAI = 4
d) an area that has an average vapor
pressure deficit of 5
compared to 15
e) a soil with greater amounts of salt
present than an
identical soil with lower salt
content
AGRONOMY 114 Exam 2
(Answers may not be 100% correct; check with instructor if questionable)
Item
Answer
1 B
2 2
3 3
4 3
5 4
6 5
7 1
8 1
9 4
10 4
11 5
12 2
13 4
14 2
15 3
16 2
17 5
18 3
19 3
20 1
21 2
22 4
23 1
24 3
25 5
26 3
27 4
28 1
29 2
30 5
31 4
32 4
33 2
34 5
35 3
36 4
37 3
38 5
39 1
40 3
41 3
42 2
43 1
44 4
45 5
46 5
47 1
48 4
49 2
50 5